> France appeared to be a stagnant society before the French Revolution. If culture was not changing, then how could it be responsible for such a climactic shift in such an important social outcome?

> Using this genealogical data, I estimate that the decline in fertility took hold in France in the 1760s

1760s don’t look far from the French Revolution to me. Ending a regime that lasted more than a dozen centuries doesn’t happen from a one night cultural shift, and I’d argue a shift starting in the 1960s seems pretty reasonable.

Of course the cultural itself is coming from other factors, but I’m not convinced it can be dismissed so lightly.