The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people
What part of the constitution grants Congress the power to impose its will on California in this case?
The Court decided that Filburn's wheat-growing activities reduced the amount of wheat he would buy for animal feed on the open market, which is traded nationally, is thus interstate, and is therefore within the scope of the Commerce Clause.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wickard_v._Filburn
Oh you grow your own food so you don't contribute to the profits of huge conglomerates? Not without the Feds' permission!
Summarized "The Court reasoned that Congress could regulate activity within a single state under the Commerce Clause, even if each individual activity had a trivial effect on interstate commerce, as long as the intrastate activity viewed in the aggregate would have a substantial effect on interstate commerce. To this extent, the opinion went against prior decisions that had analyzed whether an activity was local, or whether its effects were direct or indirect."[2]
The Supremacy clause is a power delegated to the Unites States by the Constitution
The Interstate commerce clause is a power delegated to the United States by the Constitution
The framers in 1790 did not predict that all commerce would be interstate commerce. Anything that the Federal Government allows to be the sole domain of the States is pure generosity, for quite some time.
The United States is a collection of states, and simultaneously a Federal Government of the same geographical shape overlaid. There is very little "federalism" or collaboration, it is Federal in name alone. Just a separate entity thats more well funded and resourceful than any individual state, or the collection of all the states.