I.e. a temporary license will expire by default, but a perpetual one will not.
This is not legal advice but rather my personal understanding of the matter which may or may not be factually correct.
This one clearly shows the ambiguous definition:
https://thelawdictionary.org/perpetual
> Never ceasing; continuous ; enduring; lasting; unlimited in respect of time; continuing without intermission or interval.
I guess this explains why the Terms of Service for some sites that host user generated content state that as a user you grant the company a perpetual, irrevocable license to use your content. Makes sense, thank you.
Trust some more work went into the gpl if that is true.
WOTC only has the ability to change the license of IP they own, even retroactively. However, works based on WOTC IP which were legal under the OGLv1.0 may no longer be legal under the new terms, putting them in a legal gray area (they may be illegal to distribute, or they may still be legal to distribute but only because they were legal at the time they were created).
Creating new works based on the old IP that would have been legal under the OGLv1.0 would almost certainly not be legal if WOTC changes the license, though.
But that the authors of GPL v3 wanted to close this gotcha loophole that you and the forum lawyer calls attention to, doesn't mean the gotcha loophole would have worked. Nor that it's going to work, or even will continue working even if it's worked before.
Courts aren't computers just executing legal code - for good and bad.
There is little case law about software re-licensing at least, so yeah, it's hard to say.
There is plenty of case law that says the opposite. For instance Cohen v. Paramount Picture shows that copyright licenses are not unilaterally revocable even if the original license doesn't explicitly state it is irrevocable.
A license is an enforceable contract. Revocation requires the consent of both parties, if no exception is provided for originally. Eisenberg, The Revocation of Offers covers many of the nuances of when a contract or even an offer is no longer revocable.
That is, if it's not explicitly mentioned, which one applies?
The fact that there is no "we have a new version" clause listed in the termination section would likely go against wizards but they are likely to claim deauthorization is different to termination.
That said, this is an open license rather than a regular two-sided contract, which makes a lot of things about it untested in courts and there are some pretty good legal arguments for considering it irrevocable flying around (just like in case of GPLv2, for example).
If you made something based on the license while it was in effect, you are perpetually covered.
Once they revoke the license, you can no longer make new work.
That's how I read it anyway
The Apache license does have the word irrevocable. But BSD, MIT, EPL and others do not. Does that mean that if the copyright holder for lib v1.0 decides to change the licence for lib v1.0 (not subsequent versions) to something restrictive then everything using it gets frozen in time and nothing new can be made?
Same as with Oracle vs Google, other than a bunch of court room sophists, nobody really gained anything.