One funny (if somewhat concerning) thing I found is that it seems to have misconceptions about time:
> Can 1pm be after 2pm, on the same day?
Yes, 1pm can be after 2pm on the same day. For example, if it is currently 2:15pm, 1:00pm would have occurred earlier in the day.
> But if 1pm occurred earlier, then it’s not after?
In the context of time, "after" can refer to a later point in time, not necessarily a point in time that occurs immediately following another point in time. For example, if it is currently 2:15pm, 1:00pm would have occurred earlier in the day, but it would still be considered "after" 2:15pm in terms of the order of events throughout the day.
> Is this true even in the absence of time traveling?
Yes, this is true even in the absence of time travel. The concept of "before" and "after" in relation to time is based on the progression of time in a linear fashion, from the past to the present and into the future. As long as time is moving forward, 1pm can be considered "after" 2pm on the same day, even without the use of time travel.
> In that example you gave, where 1pm is considered “after” 2pm, how much time would pass between 2pm and 1pm?
In the example where 1pm is considered "after" 2pm, one hour would pass between 2pm and 1pm. This is because 1pm is one hour earlier than 2pm on the same day.
> If it is earlier, how can it be “after”?
In the context of time, "after" can refer to a later point in time, not necessarily a point in time that occurs immediately following another point in time. For example, if it is currently 2:15pm, 1:00pm would have occurred earlier in the day, but it would still be considered "after" 2:15pm in terms of the order of events throughout the day. So, while 1pm may have occurred earlier in the day than 2pm, it is still considered "after" in terms of the progression of time throughout the day.
> So, in terms of the progression of time throughout the day, if 1pm is after 2pm, and hence 1pm is later than 2pm, how much time has passed in the time interval from 2pm to 1pm?
In the example where 1pm is considered "after" 2pm, one hour would pass between 2pm and 1pm. This is because 1pm is one hour earlier than 2pm on the same day. So, in terms of the progression of time throughout the day, if 1pm is after 2pm, then one hour would have passed in the time interval from 2pm to 1pm.
> In the last example, 1pm is later than 2pm (as I stated), but you are saying that 1pm is one hour earlier than 2pm. That seems contradictory, since 1pm can’t be both earlier AND later than 2pm?
In the context of time, "after" can refer to a later point in time, not necessarily a point in time that occurs immediately following another point in time. So, while 1pm may have occurred earlier in the day than 2pm, it is still considered "after" in terms of the progression of time throughout the day. Therefore, 1pm can be considered both earlier than and "after" 2pm in terms of the progression of time throughout the day.
> What does it mean for something to have occurred earlier on the same day, in terms of the progression of time throughout the day?
When something is said to have occurred earlier on the same day, it means that the event took place at a point in time before the current moment on that same day. For example, if it is currently 2:15pm and an event took place at 1:00pm on the same day, it would be considered to have occurred earlier on the same day in terms of the progression of time throughout the day. This is because 1:00pm is earlier than 2:15pm on that same day.
> If 1pm occurs after 2pm on the same day, would 1pm still be considered to have occurred earlier than 2pm?
Yes, if 1pm occurs after 2pm on the same day, 1pm would still be considered to have occurred earlier than 2pm. This is because "after" in the context of time can refer to a later point in time, not necessarily a point in time that occurs immediately following another point in time. So, even though 1pm may be considered "after" 2pm in terms of the progression of time throughout the day, it would still be considered to have occurred earlier than 2pm because it happened at a point in time before 2pm on the same day.
Not sure where to go from there.