Please correct me if I'm wrong.
Please correct me if I'm wrong.
Note that this is pretty much an urban legend, with little to no basis in law. "Affirmative action" when originally introduced as a standard was very clearly defined as acting to ensure that racial discrimination would not occur. Non-discrimination is, and has always been, the overall goal.
"Affirmative action" originally meant just that it wasn't enough to say "okay, we won't discriminate" - employers had to take some active measures to ensure discrimination didn't happen, but it didn't prescribe particular measures. That sounds vaguely reasonable. But over time affirmative action warped in most peoples' minds into establishing racial preferences.
Well this is likely to change. Affirmative action is zero sum: it’s impossible without discriminating against some group on the basis of a protected class.
Not sure that’s the definition of zero sum. Presumably it’s correcting for some existing discrimination. Maybe it over corrects, maybe it under corrects. Highly unlikely that the balance remains the same afterwards.
This is really a different conversation than "legacy admissions" (the name for letting the children of former graduates in preferentially, possibly especially when the former graduates are donors) -- which are so far understood as completely legal because there are no legally protected clases involved is what the GP was pointing out, I think, but which constitute a pretty significant % of some university's admissions, and which are disproportionately certain racial-ethnic groups too.
Meanwhile though, back to legacy admissions... so acknowledging it's a zero sum game, increasing "legacy" admissions means saying you want fewer students who aren't children of alumni. This means fewer first-generation college, fewer people from working class backgrounds (including white working class backgrounds, of course), and fewer Black and latino people.
If you also want to increase the number of students who are children of donors (which happens) -- it means decreasing most of those categories even more so.
How about if you restrict the number of admitted students who will need financial aid to attend so many total dollars of aid -- this is done completely openly and admitted, most colleges do not practice "need-blind admissions", meaning it's easier to get in if you can pay the full cost, which, as you say, acknowleding the zero sum nature of it, means they want fewer people who they believe will need financial aid (by not offering admission to those who they think do, they don't get the opportunity to figure out how to pay for it)
Are people upset about "affirmative action" equally upset about these things, which, as you say, are telling us that colleges and universities want, and are acting upon that desire, fewer first-generation students and fewer students from working-class and poor backgrounds, as well as fewer Black and latinx students?
Why or why not?
But when I want to say 4 I do not say 2+2. Because despite being equal, one is easier to understand
Harvard’s admission’s office, for example.