That is exactly what I find so inconsistent about the Aryan Invasion Theory. If the Aryans did indeed immigrate from Europe to India, why did Aryans in India invent the Brahmi numerals (which eventually became the Hindu Numeral System, and when Arabs came in contact with Indian Mathematicians transported it to Europe) while Europe had dumbed down Roman numerals for centuries? Why was no Vedic Knowledge or Sanskrit left behind by these Steppe nomads? I don't recall even a single instance of any migratory group not leaving behind any trace of Knowledge of their culture/traditions in their native lands.

Please don't take HN threads into religious or nationalistic flamewar, or any kind of flamewar.

If you want to have a curious conversation about translation and scholarship—great. But importing pre-existing flamewar talking points into HN threads is definitely not that, and is against the site guidelines: https://news.ycombinator.com/newsguidelines.html.

(Needless to say, I have no view on the relative reliability of Sanskrit scholars. This is purely about the sort of comment we do and don't want on this website.)

Read the whole link. Nothing about the article shared here, and the points made are really half-baked and highly debatable.

The only thing incorrect here is that Sanskrit is a syncretic language created in India through influences from Central Asia and the local languages. There are many words even in the rig Veda without any central Asian influence.