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blibble

> Because the only method shown to prevent war in Europe is co-dependence.

> The same method, which at least has worked previously

it was a common theory prior to WW1 breaking out, then WW1 broke out and falsified it

and now Russia has falsified this theory again

(the threat of the Soviet Union plus nuclear deterrence prevented war in Europe, not the EU)

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You may want to look into how many conflicts between how many parties there were in Europe prior to WWI, and since.

Surely that can be better explained by the European countries being fatally weakened by WWII (there were plenty of European conflicts after WWI), which allowed the US and Soviet Union to become the two uncontested hegemons? They very much did not want their European buffer zones to reduce their effectiveness by squandering military resources on infighting, so they enforced that their militaries remain small and, more importantly, dedicated only to defense (while remaining available for the imperial adventure of the hegemons). Both the Soviet Union and especially the US (being the prototypical ocean empire) have found plenty of excuses to get involved with war with an eye to their own benefit. Meanwhile, the European militaries have rotted to the point where most barely have any weapons to send to Ukraine. (Eastern Europe, not being under the thumb of the US for as long and being closer to Russia, has retained a stronger military.)

Gerhard Schröder certainly demonstrated that there is good money to be made in testing this theory.

Economic interdependence before WW1 wasn't even close to how much it is today.

But it was still higher than it ever had been in World history, and yet still did not prevent the Great War from breaking out. Why should we assume that this time economic interdependence is high enough to prevent a war?

Who knows how high it can go. Maybe in the early 22nd century someone will argue that economic interdependence before WW3 was nowhere near as they have it then...

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