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I might be naively interpreting this, but isn't "ownership" of a brand different than manufacturing? For instance, TTI owns Milwaukee, Ryobi... etc, but if I understand correctly, they each still manufacture independently. This would be different from the car manufacturers, where the actual components put into the car are often the same between differing brands under one larger owner (Nissan and Infiniti for instance)

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A salient example is GE. GE has not manufactured consumer products in decades. All of those “GE” appliances were developed and built by somebody else.

GE consumer products are made by Haier.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Haier

GE Appliances designs and makes appliances, and never stopped, but they've been owned by Haier, not GE, since 2016. Sort of a subtle distinction, but it matters.

There's some debate on the level of coordination, e.g. market segmentation, sales data, some component sharing, possible factory sharing, https://toolguyd.com/milwaukee-ridgid-ryobi-coordinations/

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