If I assume the author is right, then yes, I agree that there could be a case. The thing is the arguments used didn't exactly inspire that assumption. I've seen those arguments before.
As for the evidence, I checked many of the references cited and I saw lots of quotes from what looks like books on the subject. Not that much better than the opinions being posted on this thread. Is there an actual peer reviewed academic study showing a causal relationship between pornography consumption and violence against women? If there is, I have to know because I know lots of people who need to see evidence like that, especially in the medical community. If there isn't, this is merely ideological indoctrination as evidenced by their own citations:
> There seems to be a growing willingness of judges to write about the history of sexism and discrimination against women
> Once judges are sensitized to issues of subordination, power and privilege, they can include those ideas in their written opinions and legal reasoning.
So judges are being "sensitized" to these issues? It seems to me that nobody would need to be "sensitized" to the issue if actual evidence existed.