I thought leverage was effectively borrowing on anticipated gains. So I would spend $100 to, get credit to the tune of $10k, then buy my crypto with that. But, here we're talking about people buying a coin and the _seller_ saying the coin is worth 100x and so skipping the step of using fractional reserve to 'create' the funds (the loan amount) to exchange for crypto and just going straight to a deceit.
With leverage there's a debt written to counter the credit, here that doesn't seem to be happening.
So, where am I misunderstand the situation here?