Maybe it's just a terminological matter. When counting how much money there is, you count the money that the seller now has in their account. You don't also count the amount of the mortgage, which is what I interpreted the statement to mean. Note that the person (or institution) that issued the mortgage now has less money in their account.
Counting the mortgage itself would make sense if the holder of the mortgage regarded it as "just as good as cash", but of course holding a mortgage is not at all equivalent to holding cash. Holding a mortgage is a long-term investment with uncertain return, and limited liquidity, not a money equivalent.