According to this reasoning, if Ferrari builds more cars, Fiats will get less expensive.
I don’t think that’s how it’s supposed to work.
According to this reasoning, if Ferrari builds more cars, Fiats will get less expensive.
I don’t think that’s how it’s supposed to work.
We treat that weird situation as obvious undersupply in the car market, but somehow expect it with houses. Why should old, used houses sell for more than their purchase price?
2 scenarios come to mind:
1. Ferrari decrease their sale prices, thus they are more affordable for all, thus exerting price pressure on Fiat.
2. People somehow have a bucket more money and now buy Ferraris. But with all this money sloshing around, Fiat might as well up their prices because it'd make little difference on the end customers purchase decision.
In either case, the Ferrari and the Fiat are closer on price but the price pressure on Fiat varies. Curious to know your thoughts?