So were does the loss come from exactly? Were the shares that BP held not marked to market already?
I think BP is a UK company and I'm not that familiar with the specifics of their accounting system. In the disclosure they say they considered that they had "significant influence" which is an IFRS accounting term. That would mean (as simply as I can explain it) that the initial purchase is recorded at cost with their share of Rosnefts profits and dividends recorded against that holding (along with a large bundle of other accounting details).
No, they were treated using the equity method:
Depending on what goes on here market wise before they can exit their ownership stake (if they haven’t already!) is what will decide how big a loss this is.