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Do we? When was the last time a country decreased its Gini coefficient?

The period between 1945 and 1970 in the United States really stands out. Improving wages, narrowing gap of health outcomes across racial groups. It wasn’t a perfect time, but clearly metrics were getting better.

Conversely, we can observe the effects of policy since the 1970s and declare it to be a failure. Despite long periods of economic growth, income inequality continues to grow.

Post war America was a truly unique time and place. Literally the entire industrial world was destroyed apart from the US. I’m not so quick to blame bad policy. The world was going to catch up eventually and start competing, right?

there's also a similar period between 1850 and 1920, and 1850 and 1900 in sweden. IIRC (i could be wrong on this) even the nordics with their progressive redistibution policies aren't actually decreasing their gini coefficients, it's just static.

Also IIRC the US improved it's gini coefficient for the one year 2009? 2008?; a lot of rich people suddenly got less rich until they got bailed out.

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