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Yes. To suggest otherwise is to insist that cuisine (or any other tradition) must be somehow frozen at a specific point in history in order to be "authentic".

Even if that is an acceptable assertion, what would be that specific point? Does a British recipe have to predate the Romans to be traditional?

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One point is that the post-Colombian shift in native american cuisines is linked to cultural trauma. And in some cases it wasn’t that long ago.

So I understand the desire to rediscover pre-contact food.

Or so I would imagine. I know little about this topic.

Absolutely. What I mean is that we can't declare something "inauthentic" just because it was invented after a certain time or event.

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