Pardon my naivety, but you mention here that you cashed out only 1/3rd because cashing out 100% had "tax ramifications", even though 6 years later the shares you kept were worthless. Could you elaborate on the tax ramifications that made cashing out 100% a net loss compared to keeping shares that would only depreciate over time? If you cashed out for $50k with a third of your options, why wouldn't cashing out all of them be in the $150k range?