Seems like these stats could have done with a more rigorous investigation, given that they contradict the thesis of the article?
Seems like these stats could have done with a more rigorous investigation, given that they contradict the thesis of the article?
Naturally that discourages reporting and drives crime stays down
[1] Here's an interesting question - how does police/prosecutorial inaction in cases of shoplifting compare to police/prosecutorial inaction in cases of other crime? Is it more? Is it less? Is it the same?
But I don’t understand why this is a necessary relationship: the political incentives of the police are such that it always makes sense to make crime rates look as bad as possible (since more crime means more police funding). So we’d expect them to continue to make arrests, even if those arrests don’t result in a convictions. But that isn’t happening, and nobody has produced a particularly satisfying explanation other than “the cops are depressed.” Which, in turn, strikes me as a larger indictment of the police than of the DA.
Honestly that doesn't make any sense (I dunno, maybe english is not your primary language).
1. You're correct that it always makes sense for police to make crime rates as bad as possible.
2. $FOO is *NOT RECORDED AS A CRIME* if the apprehended suspect is not convicted.
So your assertion that:
> So we’d expect them to continue to make arrests, even if those arrests don’t result in a convictions.
is completely and totally incorrect in every sense of the word and under even the broadest possible interpretation.
Why would a LEO make (for example) 100 arrests in a week if every single one of them *WOULD NEVER BE RECORDED AS A CRIME* due to prosecution not getting a conviction?
> But that isn’t happening, and nobody has produced a particularly satisfying explanation other than “the cops are depressed.”
I just gave you one now; a guaranteed no-conviction of shoplifters in turn guarantees that LEOs would rather spend their efforts on making their numbers.
> 2. $FOO is NOT RECORDED AS A CRIME if the apprehended suspect is not convicted.
This is not true in any municipality that I'm aware of. For example, the NYPD's CompStat[1] system publishes weekly and monthly crime reports based on pre-conviction arrests. That information isn't considered guilt-presumptive, because it doesn't assume that any particular arrested person has committed a crime -- it's an agglomerated statistic.
Given that crime reporting data doesn't require convictions, it's not clear to me that your counterpoint holds.
I'm not sure this is completely correct... In my home town, the police used to send a list of arrests to the local paper, who would print all of them in the weekly issue. How many of those translated into convictions was something I wouldn't even know how to find out, but they certainly were able to publicize their arrest rate.
https://adamgomez.files.wordpress.com/2012/03/whythesouthmus...
https://www.politico.com/magazine/story/2017/05/13/william-f...
From Politico, no less. Bill is remembered by those who lived through those times for doing good rear-guard work in civil rights in the 1960s when it really counted.
Obviously everyone can be racist or bigoted, regardless of race but that doesn't mean they are internalizing white supremacy whenre they aren't white, it just means they are racist. Its weird to make everything all about white people and the whole concept is increasingly sounding like a way to cope with bruised savior egos.
We all have internalized white supremacy, regardless of our skin color. It’s just that the definition of “white” changes situationally (e.g. Italians weren’t considered “white” until the mid-1900s, rather they inhabited the “brown” space that south Asians and Hispanics currently do). But the internalized part is that we generally consider what is “white” to be the better outcome.
The mayor of Detroit too. He won a write-in campaign against a progressive. Now Democrats are trying to strip him of some of his appointments because he's a little too conservative for them and not progressive enough.
Look at former racist house representatives who were Democrats but renounced their racism. It's as if they never espoused racist views. But if they had been conservatives, then by definition they could never disavow their racist past and would for ever be racists.
But it’s still not clear what this has to do with the National Review.
It would be silly to say the DNC is still what it was in the 1950s, since "organisations change and it was 60 years ago" but the comment you're replying to is arguing that we only give that sort of benefit of the doubt when it's convenient politically. Buckley wouldn't be relevant otherwise here, and every single "older" newspaper would be a conservative rag if we were to go by what's been published or said by their founders.
[1]: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/William_F._Buckley_Jr.#Views_o...
[2]: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/National_Review#Controversies
The examples in that list of controversies are weak to say the least. In each case that could vaguely be considered racism or antisemitism, the higher ups at the magazine issued a rebuke and often dismissed the writer. Is this really all you got?
Meanwhile, the NYT posts shit like this: https://www.nytimes.com/2017/11/11/opinion/sunday/interracia...