I don't think I am wrong here. But I am willing to admit when I am wrong, where is my mistake?
[0]https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-30/ [1]https://gdpr.eu/eu-gdpr-personal-data/?cn-reloaded=1
I don't think I am wrong here. But I am willing to admit when I am wrong, where is my mistake?
[0]https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-30/ [1]https://gdpr.eu/eu-gdpr-personal-data/?cn-reloaded=1
its not PII as long as its impossible to link it back to a unique identification from the real world such as a name, social security number or similar.
so my previous blanket statement of IP addresses not being PII is slightly exaggerated, they can be, but they rarely are.
most people access the internet either with dynamic ip addresses or from a corporations internet providers. people that have a static ip address on a private landline and without a NAT are rare, which is why generally speaking, IP addresses aren't PII.
it does become PII if the person in question has a static ip address and is the only person using this connection.
If it was, ycombinator would have to adhere to much more stringent regulation wrt them.
I can understand your point and it was nice to entertain this conversation with you. I can't see how to convince you from my view and I don't see how you could convince me of yours. But I will keep you arguments in mind and will look for some more information regarding to it. Thank you!
GDPR handles all kinds of data related to a person, so yes: a username is personal data wrt GDPR
personally identifiable information (PII) on the other hand is only a subset of data handled by the general data protection regulation (GDPR)
This might clear that up https://techgdpr.com/blog/difference-between-pii-and-persona...