https://mobile.twitter.com/besttrousers/status/1454150695196...
https://mobile.twitter.com/besttrousers/status/1454150695196...
This fits the data we have available, doesn't require that we assume our conclusion (we just assume women respond to incentives), and is able to help explain other phemonena. It's got a lot of features we want in a good model!
- Matt Darling
Edit: It seems like he assumes some "fixed cost" in order to counter the finding that women are less likely to pursue STEM education.
Is there something I am missing?
This is sort of a double whammy since not only are the social sciences messy enough that it’s easier to get away with that sort of thing, but they always have been chock full of hypotheses that lots of people have motivated biases against.
Disclaimer: "I believe that nurture, rather than nature, plays a larger role, generally speaking, in the development of an individual's occupational aspirations", or vice versa.
Anything that influences a decision can be reframed as a cost or incentive, but without actually identifying the cost nothing is being explained.
Is Matt Darling aware that in most European countries university education is (financially speaking) free or extremely low cost? And said cost is about the same no matter what you study?
Edit to make it more clear: As far as I know crushing student debt is an US and UK thing. Not continental Europe. I have no idea how things go outside US/Europe though.
(As a possible example, the only European countries with higher percentages of tertiary education than the US in the 25-34 age group are Norway, Ireland, Luxembourg, Lithuania, and Russia. I suppose that only 28% of Germans are interested in tertiary education, as opposed to 49% in Norway and Ireland. (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_tertiary_...)
I'm assuming he's assuming that... :)
In the sentence:
"Women pay some fixed cost for being in the labor market, in general. Perhaps due to discrimination, perhaps to something else"
It seems pretty clear to me he does not mean just financial.
It has less to do with any ideology and more a combination of mathematics and pragmatism. Namely an insufficient number of people who could afford even free college from the opportunity cost of not working full time. Even if the economy advanced enough that they could technically go to a more American model.
This is meant to be broad brush "first principles reasoning" and includes many disparate nations and situations. Some may also have a sufficient percentage from traditionally priveledged strata who could afford it. Often families who were traditional bureaucratic, military, or priestly occupations.
I don't think it goes up to "paid to be a student" most of the time. If you're not lucky enough to have local universities on your chosen subject you still have to pay for (possibly cheap student) lodging. Said gatekeeping exams may also be an extra cost if you need to pay someone to prepare for them.
However, the financial burden overall is much smaller.
The argument is that when presented with few attractive alternatives, they simply overcome these hurdles.