One example: "The ultra-rich need no encouragement to refrain from buying goods and services, so any increase in income concentration should put downward pressure on interest rates. Another way to look at it is that an increase in income concentration boosts the demand for financial assets, which should push up prices and push down yields."
Why should income inequality do that? What matters would be people's spending power, which is not necessarily correlated with income inequality - everybody could get richer, only some people could get a lot more richer, and it would still be income inequality.
Also not sure how he calculates growth and demand. He argues there is less need to invest into the future because there are fewer young people. But don't older people have even more needs than younger people (their maintenance is more expensive, they need accessible housing, cars to drive them around and so on)?
In my country (Germany) apparently they expect the demand for housing to rise, even though they expect fewer people, because they think people will live in increasingly smaller households (so more households with fewer people per household).
Just some random examples.