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Is there any proposed logic behind the difference in thresholds between the two groups? It seems designed to do just one thing - overestimate cases in the unvaccinated, and underestimate cases in the vaccinated. What is the actual rationale the CDC provides?

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Vaccinated people have a strong immune response to the virus, and presumably it would take a much higher viral load to make them clinically ill.

To me this seems like a much more plausible explanation for dual thresholds than some kind of conspiracy to inflate numbers for political reasons. Immunology is not my field though.

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