Note: I’m not very familiar with the situation, just ideating.
Note: I’m not very familiar with the situation, just ideating.
In the past, landlords owned property and rented it out. If there was a mortgage, rent covered the interest payments rather than principal (interest rates were once far higher than today) and rents were generally lower than mortgage costs. If rent is higher than mortgage costs, the renter would be better off purchasing the property. A landlord that is asking rents higher than their mortgage is simply leveraging their better credit rating, renting out an asset for higher than someone with similar credit could purchase it.
Got a citation for this claim?
During my 32 years living in the USA, and the 25 before that in the UK and elsewhere, I was never aware of rent working this way.
The difference between renting and owning was not so much the monthly payments, but:
* tenant has no financial or labor responsibility for repairs or capital improvements; landlord fully responsible.
* landlord collects all (if any) capital gains
* landlord pays insurance on building; tenant pays insurance on contents
* owner combines all above roles.
If this wasn't the case, in theory renters would just become buyers themselves.