The author mentioned the risk is 2x higher but what is the risk of the original variant itself ? The author didn't mention that.
The IFR (Infected Fatality Rate4) for the original variant was about 0.01% for those in their 20s and 0.2% for those in their 40s.
Direct link to the chart https://cdn.substack.com/image/fetch/f_auto,q_auto:good,fl_p...
Thanks, so 2x of that is 0.02% and 0.4%, that was my point: 2x of a low rate is still low
The risk is low but not even healthy 20 year olds should disregard a 2/10000 risk of preventable death.