E.g. my "house" is valued at 700k. But the appraisal puts that at $280k structure and $420k land. 1% of 700k is 7k, but 1% of 420k is 4.2k.
E.g. my "house" is valued at 700k. But the appraisal puts that at $280k structure and $420k land. 1% of 700k is 7k, but 1% of 420k is 4.2k.
We can fiddle around the edges, e.g. the tax being 50% of market rent rather than 100%. But the principle remains the same.
Note also that houses used as main dwellings would be exempt or pay a heavily reduced rate.
EDIT: So taking that example, let's say your house rents for 1000$ (I've no idea if this is reasonable or not). Land according to your appraisal is 60% of the property value, so land rent, that is, what you owe as LVT, is 600$/mo or 7200$/yr.
This isn't usually part of LVT proposals, and for good reason. LVT should apply to all land everywhere, or else it becomes much less effective.
It obviously would hit an equilibrium at some point but I'm not sure where.
Land developers and people would naturally become economically incentivized to live in apartments as a result, unless they live somewhere somewhat rural already.