This is interesting (from Wikipedia article on Benford's Law):
In the United States, evidence based on Benford's law is legally admissible in criminal cases at the federal, state, and local levels.
In the United States, evidence based on Benford's law is legally admissible in criminal cases at the federal, state, and local levels.
Wouldn't it be stranger (and actually interesting) if that evidence wasn't admissible?