lol. okay. This presents the relationship as if it's a linear function without an upper bound or diminishing return, which seems suspect. I doubt that. [1]
More holistically speaking, let's approach this with some skepticism. Did they control for wealth? Is coffee predominantly consumed by people with better access to healthcare and who can afford better medical treatment? A priori, I would believe that is generally the case.
Maybe they should specifically study the relationship between coffee consumption and prostate cancer in relatively lower income populations that still drink a lot of it, like truckers.
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1. Though I would believe their analysis technically indicates it, especially if they only did the bare minimum of statistical work and simply tested for a linear relationship...