Yes, it has, and it has increased. This article is either terribly disingenuous or merely ignorant.
Edit: I would appreciate a response rather than a downvote. I don't mind disagreement, but at least give me the chance to address it.
Wouldn't the rich be the ones holding a disproportionate amount of cash?
Over the last 30 years the amount of federal tax revenues from the top income quintile has increased substantially while the amount contributed by all other quintiles has fallen. Today the top quintile contributes 2.2x as much tax revenue as all other quintiles combined. And the top 1% contributes nearly as much taxes as the bottom 80%.
If the top quintile grew the percentage of income more than 2.2X over the same time period, that quintile is paying proportionally less while paying a higher share.
Any links for percentage of income by quintile? (not wealth, income)
Yes, but that chart doesn't say anything about the number of rich people over that range of years. I expect a lot more millionaires exist today than in 1979.
However, the historical top tax rate has decreased from 70% to 35% over the period from 1979 to present (http://www.taxpolicycenter.org/taxfacts/displayafact.cfm?Doc...).
Regardless of the tax rate the actual tax revenues from the top 20, 10, and 1% has increased substantially in the last several decades, to the degree such that only 40% of households are contributing fully 85% of federal tax revenues today.
In the late 1970s, the top 1 percent took home 9 percent of total national income. Now the top 1 percent’s take is more than 20 percent.
The chart you referenced shows tax revenues on the top 1% roughly doubled for the time period from 1979 to 2007, but over that approximate time period so did the total percent of the national income going to the top 1%! That would appear to explain much, if not all, of the increase right there. One wouldn't be able to take home double the income yet pay the same in taxes without serious loopholes.