This usage fits definitions a, b, and c. This very definition draws a distinction between a 'fallacy' and a 'logical fallacy'
No, it doesn't.
Government: - "We will use data just for medical purposes"
Government (later): - "Guess what, we lied/we recant: we will use them for other state purposes too".
There's nothing fallacious in (a), (b) or (c) way about either statement or the whole situation.