Your reply shows some pretty busted mental models, revealing bias or poor reasoning. Let me break it down for you. The reasonable people in this debate can speak clearly about this in a way you don't seem able to.
> Actually, no. If there was no election fraud (as it seems to have been proven)
Your claim here seems to be that there was no election fraud, and it seems proven. Two problems with this statement:
- You cannot prove there was no election fraud, it is unfalsifiable.
- Beyond that, the idea that there was no election fraud is absurd on its face. We should expect there to have been some election fraud, with some liklihood of finding evidence of it, since in an election as large as this one there is always election fraud to some degree.
What I think you're trying to say, is there is insufficient evidence to prove there was sufficient election fraud to have an impact on the result. If that's the case, I agree with you. But commentators who say things like "there is no evidence of fraud" or "there is no evidence of widespread fraud" are wrong in the former case and creating a strawman in the latter. And of course, the effect of saying fallacious things like this is it just serves as confirmation for the other side that you are acting in bad faith. The specific claim made is that there was targeted fraud in specific districts in swing states to tip the result. I don't think there is sufficient evidence to show this.
> then they all have the same wrong belief, regardless of degree
My point is the degree matters if we care about avoiding a conflict.
> The goal isn't to convince all of them...
I don't know what you are saying here. My point is that if you are trying to persuade people of their errors in reasoning, you shouldn't expect to convince all of them, just a sufficient amount to reduce their confidence in their wrong beliefs to change the dynamics of the situation enough to avoid the worst possibilities.
> Both of those have happened. So why do you, a reasonable(?) person on HN trying to convince us that it hasn't?
This is objectively false. A full forensic audit of all the states has not occurred (some local forensic audits of sampled ballots in specific counties in some states has) and SCOTUS has not heard any cases (yet) about this issue. I don't know why you state obvious untruths, beyond just being ignorant of the facts or something.