But I have absolutely no idea how to visualise entanglement. Any tips? Or do we just have to shut up and calculate?
But I have absolutely no idea how to visualise entanglement. Any tips? Or do we just have to shut up and calculate?
I don't think so. You can have a wave function in physical 3-D space as a (very common) special case and you still have the wave-particle dichotomy.
Why do you think configuration space explains WPD?
The really odd part to me is that at macro scales the probability waves collapse neatly into classic physics in 3D space, but still react in quantum fashion at small local atomic scales. As in the configuration spaces generally can only be determined for small subsystems but not a whole macro system without the “conversion” step.
Edwin James had some interesting commentary on things like this:
"From his reply to EPR, we find that Bohr's position was like this: 'You may decide of you own free will, which experiment to do. If you do experiment E1 you will get Result R1. If you do E2 you will get R2. Since it is fundamentally impossible to do both on the same system, and the present theory correctly predicts the results of either, how can you say that the theory is incomplete? What more can one ask of a theory?'
While it is easy to understand and agree with this on the epistemological level, the answer that I and many others would give is that we expect a physical theory to do more than merely predict experimental results in the manner of an empirical equation; we want to come down to Einstein's ontological level and understand what is happening when an atom emits light, when a spin enters a Stern-Gerlach magnet, etc. The Copenhagen theory, having no answer to any question of the form: 'What is really happening when - - -?', forbids us to ask such questions and tries to persuade us that it is philosophically naive to want to know what is happening. But I do want to know, and I do not think this is naive; and so for me QM is not a physical theory at all, only and empty mathematical shell in which a future theory may, perhaps, be built."
https://bayes.wustl.edu/etj/articles/cmystery.pdf
...and which he goes on to makes some interesting observations about the Bell Inequalities.
"Just as Bell revealed hidden assumptions in vonNeumann's argument,so we need to reveal the hidden assumptions in Bell's argument. There are at least two of them, both of which require the Jeffreys view point about probability to recognize..."
https://www.amazon.com/Probability-Theory-Science-T-Jaynes/d...
And there is a website with more information and a collection of his papers:
https://arxiv.org/abs/1005.2357
http://dl.icdst.org/pdfs/files1/77964f05542451c01e8e420e975d...
Looking at a single object with a fixed angle camera produces similar observations to an entagled pair when the pair is in a similar configuration and where each object in the pair is observed by their own camera except one of the cameras sees a negated result.
https://arstechnica.com/science/2017/07/a-brief-history-of-q...
More seriously, I interpreted "darker corners of the internet" in the parent to be a bit tongue in cheek, but to generally be indicating fora where there's a higher ratio of layman to expert, and crackpot to serious practitioner. There was no claim that it isn't discussed outside of that setting, just that it occurs more frequently there (as a proportion of QM discussions in general). This squares with my (poorly informed) general impression.
In the entanglement experiment described the particles have angular momentum every which way until the angular momentum of one is pinned down by measurement whereupon the other one is also pinned down to the opposite by conservation of momentum. There is still a sort of spooky action at a distance when that happens or perhaps a splitting of the multiverse 'at a distance' into many worlds where the spins point different ways.
I think one of the appeals to actual physicists who do experiments is that is how things are usually set up - there's some equipment that makes a measurement and the Schrödinger equation stuff till collapse thing gives the correct result for what is observed. Obviously the universe got on ok for billions of years before physicists evolved so it's a simplification of reality.
But that is not the same, right? I mean, if it interacted with a force and no observation was made, the wave function doesn’t collapse, does it? Honest question (to avoid any defensiveness, I should disclose that I don’t subscribe to panpsychism).
> or anything along those lines
Any suggestions?
Simple interaction between two systems doesn't cause "collapse" it makes the two systems become entangled. Classical systems are a bit contagious in this sense, anything that gets entangled with them becomes classical.
To be a bit more precise, this distinction between classical and quantum is a bit our fault. Everything is quantum at a fundamental level, classical system is one for which we do have not have a precise knowledge of the state of the system, instead we have a coarse representation. This should make more obvious in which way "classicalness" is contagious. Since the knowledge of a part was coarse, the knowledge of the newly entangled system is also necessarily coarse.
Consider the classic two-slit interference experiment. Whether the electron goes through the left or right slit can be treated a single qubit. Use a controlled-NOT gate to copy that qubit onto a second storage location, without observing either. Optionally drop the second qubit into a black hole to head off any claims about supposed future observations. Allow the electron to continue. Do you still observe interference pattens as in the non-copying version of the experiment? Why or why not?
Using the word copy in conjunction with C-NOT is slightly misleading as the copies do not behave independently.
Tongue-in-cheek explanation: Maybe whoever wrote our simulation used shallow copy when they should have done a deep copy.
That's what the word "copy" means. If you flip a coin and copy that bit, you will observe that those copies do not behave independently either. If you want independent bits, flip two coins.
Similarly, "erasing" a (qu)bit technically consists of performing a exchange operation between it and a known-zero bit. In typical electronic computers, this would generally involve diffusion-like exchanges between the voltage level in a memory capacitor (such as a FET gate) and that on the GND rail, which has a much greater effective number of bits and therefore will stay mostly zero, but eventually requires a thermodynamic expenditure of known-valued bits (aka negentropy) from some external source to maintain its voltage level / bit zeroness. (This is rather simplified; there's lots of other sources of known-zero and known-one bits getting depleted and replenished, and the exact accounting depends on how you interpret various physical states information-theoretically.)
That should have had a "for example" in front.
Any two systems interacting will cause the collapse. It doesn't matter if the system is attached to a scientist or not.
> Any suggestions?
No, I'm a software developer, not a quantum physicist. :)
I suppose that means if a photon, say, is reflected by a mirror, that should collapse its wave function and any measurements after that should not have any effect on it?
Maybe it should be qualified what kind of interaction collapses wave function?
> I'm a software developer, not a quantum physicist.
Great, I’m not a quantum physicist either—yet here we are, talking about quantum physics!
I'm not sure if that example is the right one to use, but yes, that's roughly my understanding.
I suppose if we can calculate exactly how a given force would influence a photon, that would be essentially the same as “measuring” it.