SCOTUS first held in 1824 that the Commerce Clause gives the federal government the right to regulate intrastate commerce in a 6-0 decision.
You're about 200 years too late to be arguing that there's no basis in the US Constitution.
You're about 200 years too late to be arguing that there's no basis in the US Constitution.
The massive expansion and erosion of the meaning of interstate commerce didn't begin until Wickard v Filburn in 1942.
Wickard v Filburn held that the Commerce Clause extends to regulating the growing of wheat for personal consumption, that involved no commercial transactions whatsoever.
Redefining "interstate" is a mistake that one would hope that at least libertarian conservatives (who deliberately avoid expansionary scope creep without limit) would oppose.