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So there's two reasons why there is a male preference advantage here: 1) I ran the algorithm assuming the men make the first move and 2) Male/female normal/pareto correlation in attractiveness

Do you mean what would happen if the distributions were switched but men still make the first move? I could change up the script and run it again if that's what you mean!

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calling it male/female at this point is kind of arbitrary, when it's the asymmetry in the distributions that I thinks interesting, but yeah, what happens if the pareto-preference population was the first mover rather than the normal-preference population that acted first. It's well documented that the first mover in the stable mariage problem has an advantage, It's why they switched from residency programs to being first movers to med students being first movers about a decade ago for The Match. This is the first I've seen it done with different preference distributions in the population. I'm curious how strong of effect the advantage is for different distributions.

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