No, that is a misrepresentation of Goedel's results. A theorem that is undecidable (neither provable nor refutable) from a set of axioms cannot be 'true' in the logical sense (because there are models of that set of axioms in which the theorem is true, and other models in which the theorem is false) - see Goedel's completeness theorem, which says that every truth is provable (and vice versa).
Goedel's incompleteness theorems can be understood on the semantic level as the mathematical structure of natural numbers cannot be characterized by a sane set of axioms, so any such attempt (e.g. peano axioms) that describes natural numbers also describes a different mathematical structure (a nonstandard model of arithmetic) and there exists a theorem that is true in one and false in the other model (so that theorem is undecidable).