Curious how this is relevant to the study?
Roughly 0.001% of women are killed by a male partner each year in the US and - while terrible in of itself - I can't see it affecting the results of this study in any significant way.
Rates of violence between partners show men instigating and abusing more often. A couple of different UN and US sources here are showing that a little over one in five women experiences abuse during her lifetime, compared to a bit under one in ten men: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Domestic_violence_in_the_Uni...
But I was specifically asking the OP about murder because it isn't obviously a significant factor in this study (and I was interested to hear why they thought otherwise).
I'm confused as to what point you're trying to make.
EDIT: Removed bad pre-coffee math. See replies below for better math.
I hope this helps you see why such a consideration could be considered relevant to the study.
No - you're off by two orders of magnitude. Much closer to ~1500 women/year.
That's still ~1500 too many, no question. But is it likely to impact this study in any meaningful way? Seems unlikely to me (to put it mildly).
> Among US women, fear/wariness-of and preparedness-for attempts at bodily harm and abusive behavior by men appears to be near-universal.
That sounds like a reasonable assumption and not one I'd argue against (as someone with no real insight here).
But the question was explicitly regarding murder. Not more general violence/abuse.
I welcome the well-meaning comment and think your contribution was valuable in its own right, but please don't move the goalposts.
Ref: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crime_in_the_United_States#Hom...
You're high by a factor of 100.