> should've expanded on my example more, since Anglo-American history is not universally taught around the globe.
No worries, I actually live in the States and I have Puritan ancestors. I just don't think your analogy is correct.
Let me see if I can reconstruct your analogy in a way to show why I think it fails.
We can think of two definitions for "puritanical":
A) Devout (neutral connotation)
B) Excessively dogmatic (negative connotation)
In this case, (B) is the more correct definition because it captures the connotation. You claim my definition is closer to (A), whereas I think mine is closer to (B). Namely, by highlighting the fact that the suppression of speech is done "without regard to it's truth or falsehood" I think that's a pretty clear red flag.
Of course, this is more or less consistent with how it was originally used by the people who originally coined the term and had positive associations with it.
> Why would you pejoratively refer to something as "politically incorrect," if you think political correctness is bad?
Sorry, typo. I meant "pejoratively referred to policies as 'politically correct'".