Does such an agreement have a legal force (in US/EU)? I get the patent laws and not violating the IP, but I find it strange that just the curiousity of seeing how it works can get lawyers attacking you.
Earlier this year, the Tenth Circuit court upheld a preliminary injunction granted in favor of an electronics equipment manufacturer against a reseller of its goods in a trademark infringement action. In Beltronics v. Midwest Inventory Distribution, the reseller (Midwest) argued that it was able to resell the manufacturer’s goods based on the first sale doctrine. The court, however, disagreed with this assessment and ruled that the resellers violated the manufacturer’s trademark rights because Midwest’s sales caused consumer confusion.
https://www.theiplawblog.com/2009/12/articles/trademark-law/...