I'm struggling to understand how one
would attempt to claim that the racism of today is equally or more pernicious than the racism of first and second wave antiracism movements? Is it your genuine belief that racism today exceeds that during 2nd wave antiracism? That people in 2018 suffer racism of equal magnitude as compared to poll taxes, explicit refusal to hire certain races, de-facto legal lynching, etc. ? Or first wave antiracism (abolitionism)? It seems incredibly difficult to make either of these claims.
No doubt, any amount of racism is more than what is ideal. But to criticize the article for, "implying that the racism of today is less pernicious, and leaving no scope for it to be equally as pernicious" strikes me as non-sensical, since the overwhelming majority of people would agree that it is less pernicious.