To the best of my knowledge, the best answer is "nobody knows". There are some vaguely similar things in the precedents, especially when it comes to protocols that require you to use a particular
patent to talk to a given device, and IIRC there is some verbiage in some places that distinguishes copying around for simple transmission reasons rather than delivery to an end user (though I can't imagine how to stretch that to cover this case), but in this particular case, nobody knows.
In fact if you spend much time thinking about this it isn't at all hard to come up with a lot of scenarios that law doesn't have an answer for, in theory or in practice.