I think it's funny that one comment on this post says that Bose "forgot that there is an entire range of frequencies between the 'highs' and the 'lows'" and another one that says "No highs, no lows, must be Bose." How can both be true?
Through careful marketing, Bose produces a product that is coveted by the semi-affluent consumer who also wants to signal to themselves and their friends 'I have arrived'.
Most people have never heard an accurate sound system, eg: a professionally engineered room. But they DO know that their plastic Akai system is NOT the pinnacle of sound. So, you get your first big signing bonus or job promotion and a new house. You've got a little disposable income and want to splurge a little. In comes Bose and their little magic speakers. You bring the system home, set it up, and the sound is RADICALLY different from anything you've heard before. It's way different than your little Akai system, and it seems as if the sound is careening off the walls (eq'ing towards the higher freqs, plus mutli directional speakers to achieve some reflections). This is WAY different( plus it wasn't cheap) therefore it MUST be good.
I have some background in audio (both in home theater and in sound studios). 'Good' sound can be somewhat in the ear of the listener, much like art can be in the eye of the beholder. And, not everybody wants Accurate, some people just want to put on a CD of their favorite artist and hear the sound in a way they didn't expect to, and Bose delivers that experience for people.
This is the key point.
In this case, "For the money" = $5,349 (yikes!)
Have a look at the frequency response graphs and associated comments here. Both statements turn out to be true.