>Studies which include the complete value of benefits in their calculation of wages and use the same method to deflate both wages and productivity show that there is no "wage decoupling" from productivity.
Do you have an example?
Do you have an example?
http://www.nber.org/papers/w13953.pdf
http://cep.lse.ac.uk/pubs/download/dp1246.pdf
The last one they muddy the waters quite a big where they talk about a "net decoupling" and "gross decoupling". The first they use the same deflator and the second they use a different deflator. Using different deflators for wages and productivity means you're comparing apples to oranges.
Economists Donald Boudreaux and Liya Plagashvili discuss the topic in greater detail in this WSG op-ed https://www.wsj.com/articles/donald-boudreaux-and-liya-palag...