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Not a lawyer here but would that fall under "profiting from the proceeds of crime"?

This article from Australia suggests it's illegal in that country, I wonder if it's the same in the US.

>Orders may also be made to seize the proceeds of the commercial exploitation of a person’s notoriety from criminal offending, literary or otherwise (but often described as “literary proceeds”).

http://theconversation.com/explainer-how-proceeds-of-crime-l...

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OJ Simpson wrote “(If) I Did It” and made money off that

I believe he was taken to court by the father of Ron Goldman, who won rights to the book. I'm not too familiar with the circumstances arouns the case, though, so this doesn't necessarily refute the idea that OJ could potentially have profited.

My understanding was that Goldman initially won a lien on the profits from the book, since Simpson owed Goldman money from the civil suit, and later the Goldman's where handed the book rights by the bankruptcy courts, when OJ failed to pay his debts.

So in theory OJ could have profited if he didn't also, independently, owe the Goldman's a lot of money.

Officially OJ Simpson never commit those crimes.

Some US states have laws like this, but they're usually limited to certain kinds of crimes. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Son_of_Sam_law

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