No, you just think it is. The intruder must be there to commit a further crime, usually a violent one.
An intruder must be making (or have made) an attempt to unlawfully or forcibly enter an occupied
residence, business, or vehicle.
The intruder must be acting unlawfully (the castle doctrine does not allow a right to use force
against officers of the law, acting in the course of their legal duties).
The occupant(s) of the home must reasonably believe the intruder intends to inflict serious bodily
harm or death upon an occupant of the home. Some states apply the Castle Doctrine if the occupant(s) of the home
reasonably believe the intruder intends to commit a lesser felony such as arson or burglary.
The occupant(s) of the home must not have provoked or instigated an intrusion; or, provoked/instigated
an intruder's threat or use of deadly force.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Castle_doctrine#Conditions_of_...