Is it really the case? I know it comes up in every discussion about cannabis but I'm wondering if it is really the case. Cannabis (and most psychoactive drugs with the exception of alcohol) are banned in most countries in the world and it has nothing to do with harassing minorities.
For those that banned it later, it's usually because they signed one of the global drug control treaties:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/International_Opium_Convention
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Single_Convention_on_Narcotic_...
Both have been heavily pushed by US (indeed, it effectively organized the first one), and in both cases US was the one that targeted cannabis specifically. In the Single Convention, US was the one that demanded it to be placed on the most restrictive Schedule available.
Here's a good read about all this: https://www.tni.org/en/publication/the-rise-and-decline-of-c...
The same administration that pushed hard to get Cannabis classified as schedule 1 in the UN convention on drugs, as claimed by Canadian archive documents.
And yes, cannabis was banned because of who was using it - as well as how USEFUL it was in disrupting other industries (such as paper) - not because of its effects. There are countless documentaries which discuss this - a simple Youtube search will yield results.
Not really-really.
https://pointsadhsblog.wordpress.com/2016/08/09/the-real-his...