Hacker News Reader

Comment by cygx | Hacker News Reader

1. The Old Testament generally approved and regulated slavery, but it was different than the chattel slavery we tend to think of

Which ignores the difference in rules applying to Hebrew slaves compared to foreign slaves. As far as foreigners are concerned, you could beat them severely as long as you don't outright beat them to death. You could give wives to your male slaves, and the children would be born enslaved. After your death, these slaves became part of your inheritance.

How is that substantially different from our modern understanding of the word?

View on HN

That's not true, children born to slaves were treated as the master's children

> If his master gives him a wife and she bears him sons or daughters, the wife and her children shall be her master’s, and he shall go out alone. (Exodus 21:4)

further beating slaves had consequences of letting the slave go free if he is injured (Exodus 21:26-27)

>“When a man strikes the eye of his slave, male or female, and destroys it, he shall let the slave go free because of his eye. If he knocks out the tooth of his slave, male or female, he shall let the slave go free because of his tooth.

children born to slaves were treated as the master's children

That applies to Hebrew slaves. What happens to the children of foreign slaves is not clearly stated, but it's the logical consequence of the rules applicable to Hebrews and foreigners.

further beating slaves had consequences of letting the slave go free if he is injured

If they are permanently injured. Cf Exodus 21:20-21:

Anyone who beats their male or female slave with a rod must be punished if the slave dies as a direct result, but they are not to be punished if the slave recovers after a day or two, since the slave is their property.

There are no repercussions for whipping them as severely as you like as long as they recover.

It is a common misunderstanding to assume that the laws of the old testament are applicable to all humanity.

A contemporary Jewish reader would have been amazed at an idea that "though shall not kill" for example, applies to gentiles.

Where does it say that "thou shalt not kill" does not apply to gentiles, in any Jewish religious text from any time? And by that of course I mean "does not apply to gentiles, period, kill them as you'd kill animals, no biggie" as opposed to laws about waging war etc. - which is the only non-weasely interpretation of "does not apply to gentiles"?

You should checkout the old testament. There is god sanctioned gentiles killing aplenty. See the story of Amalek for example

"From man unto woman, from infant unto suckling, from ox unto sheep, so that the name of Amalek not be mentioned even with reference to an animal by saying "This animal belonged to Amalek".

That is not correct.

The 10 commandments and the covenant of Noah apply to all.

The 513 "mitzvot" apply to Hebrews/Jews only.

Reply on news.ycombinator.com