In reality, it seems to me that if you want to develop a system of understanding you have to develop a set of axioms and accept them. And by Goedel's incompleteness theorem, your system cannot be a complete or exhaustive description of what is true.
In reality, it seems to me that if you want to develop a system of understanding you have to develop a set of axioms and accept them. And by Goedel's incompleteness theorem, your system cannot be a complete or exhaustive description of what is true.
If you mean that there are arguments against the Aristotelean concept of an unmoved mover, that is certainly so.
But typically the term "discredited" implies a broad public consensus, whereas many people accept some form of the cosmological argument, which is related to the concept of an unmoved mover.
To use your version of "discredited," we might say that both theism and atheism are discredited, merely because there are arguments against each.
If "everything in existence depends on something else" is a valid generalization, introducing an entity with out such dependencies is a cobtradiction.
OTOH, if it's not a valid generalization, any number of things in existence could lack such a dependency, and there is no need to assume a unique and special unobserved entity with no dependencies.
An independent common first cause or unmoved mover is, perhaps, an aesthetically pleasing (for some) solution to the apparent problem that things generally seem to have causes but infinite regress is an unappealing belief. But it is neither logically necessary, nor does any first cause necessary resemble God (the Big Bang works fine as an uncaused cause on which all other events in the universe depends, and isn't anything like any traditional concept of God, as, more generally, does any initial state inferred from modern observations of physics.)
Sure, but Aristotle, Aquinas and Leibniz did not this that this was a valid generalization.
>the Big Bang works fine as an uncaused cause on which all other events in the universe depends
It would not work fine as an uncaused cause, since it is not purely actual.
Also, it's worth noting that the unmoved mover argument doesn't actually make any reference to the universe as such. It starts with any given instance of motion and then argues that this motion must ultimately have originated from an unmoved mover. Neither the universe nor its beginning in time is ever mentioned. (And in fact Aristotle thought that the universe was past eternal, and Aquinas was neutral on that issue.)
2: lots of humans don't believe X
Maybe there is a third kind of "discredited."
That's not really the case with the cosmological argument, or with the (similar but not identical) argument given by Aristotle for an unmoved mover.
2) Few philosophers are experts in the cosmological argument anyway, so it doesn't matter what most philosophers think of it.
Well, that's still right, whether there are same-ish fundamental particles or not.
Just a pair of particles being the same in all their aspects doesn't make them identical. For example they don't occupy the same place in space.
Of course there are not two identical things in the universe. Because being identical they're the same thing, aren't they? It's called the identity of indiscernibles. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Identity_of_indiscernibles
And one may disagree with the "unmoved mover" (let's call it an) axiom but if one takes that as given then it is plain to see that Leibniz's argument holds. And say you actually do disagree with it as an axiom then you have a bigger problem, what Umberto Eco called the most intractable problem of all, the problem that generates all other problems, namely, "Why is there something rather than nothing?"
Eliezer Yudkowsky has made an argument against doing epistemology by intuition [1]. Famously, Henri Bergson tried to use his intuition about time to dismiss special relativity, and while he may have swayed the Nobel prize committee [2], his ideas were swept away by history.
Turning now to your last paragraph, it is like saying Bernie Madoff's clients were wealthy because the arithmetic in their statements was correct. Also, one cannot validly argue against the rejection of a self-serving axiom on the grounds that doing so leaves problems unsolved.
[1] http://lesswrong.com/lw/q1/bells_theorem_no_epr_reality/
[2] http://nautil.us/issue/35/boundaries/this-philosopher-helped...
http://lesswrong.com/lw/ph/can_you_prove_two_particles_are_i...
Logic, science and philosophy (and Leibniz did all three) doesn't concern itself with the "common understandings of the world".
In the Leibniz's example, he wanted to set first principles -- that go deeper than the "common understanding".
Just a pair of particles being the same in all their aspects doesn't make them identical. For example they don't occupy the same place in space.
From the accepted answer:
That's what a Bose-Einstein condensate is: lots of bosons in the same place and quantum state.