https://docs.google.com/spreadsheets/d/1y0VtAf9OpjwU7Haf4dHY...
in case anyone else was wondering
EDIT: indeed it is > 15% even including only the publicly traded companies, for which the numbers of can be considered less speculative
https://docs.google.com/spreadsheets/d/1y0VtAf9OpjwU7Haf4dHY...
in case anyone else was wondering
EDIT: indeed it is > 15% even including only the publicly traded companies, for which the numbers of can be considered less speculative
A more correct measure is a much simpler one: the aggregate product of all these companies over the GDP. Note that this aggregate product is of course a component of the GDP, so you can express this neatly as a percentage. I see only one major accounting complication in constructing this metric, and that's the inclusion/exclusion of foreign products and subsidiaries. (See e.g. offshore revenues that are not repatriated, and therefore not part of the domestic product calculations -- I think?)
Alternatively, percentage of rents at office and industrial zoned land would be a good measure. That'd separate out national vs international activity, at the cost of being significantly more difficult to estimate and calculate. I actually don't know how well rents and imputed rents are tracked at aggregate levels and broken down by company, so this may very well be data that we simply don't have access to.
GDP doesn't directly correlate to earnings though.
Or is there an accepted measure of national economy that might play a sensible denominator for the sum I put together?
As I said, I don't know enough about economics to pretend to be making a reasonable comparison, I just went for the numbers I could find on a whim at 2am :-)
Thanks for actually knowing things
I am not an especially economically-(or even really quantitatively) inclined person; I just see GDP bandied about as a metric of "size of economy" and market cap as "value of company". Revenue is probably locatable if someone wants to dig into quarterlies... I probably spent too much time on this exercise already
- $2.7T in market cap
- let's say average P/E ratio is 25 (P/E is approximately the ratio of company valuation to annual profits)
- let's say the profit margin of a typical tech company is 20%
- let's say 40% of a typical tech company's revenue is in the US
Estimated US revenue of the companies in your spreadsheet: $2.7T / 25 / 0.20 * 0.40 = $216b (about 1.5% of GDP, which is still huge)
By the way, I think your initial estimate of the total market cap of companies signing the brief is quite useful and informative, it just shouldn't be compared to GDP :)
I'm on mobile so I can't get the interface to work properly but it's much easier on desktop Mathematica or WolframAlpha. In the above figure, I only included names from the OP that I was certain were public after a quick glance and I didn't even get to Microsoft. The number is something like $500 billion a year but as a sibling comment to yours mentions, this includes international revenue that may never make it to the US.
Accurate data on this scale is hard to come by without a working Bloomberg terminal.
The US manufacturing industry is about $3 trillion a year in actual industrial production and the tech industry has way less leverage, let alone political clout.
Edit: the total market cap of the S&P 500 broke $15 trillion in 2013 and as of 2015, all of the companies in that index didn't even employ a fifth of US workers. Add in all the spending and investment property that doesn't make it into S&P figures (govt taxes + bonds, real estate, etc) and I bet the total number is probably >$100 trillion.
a) the rules of voting are clear, this is both the will of the people, and is also what the people are expected to accept as citizens. The time to denounce or change those rules is before your guy loses.
b) the popular vote is not the entire country, because not everyone voted. Not only do campaign strategies and other factors affect those numbers (to a degree that might make up the difference), but if you argue that people who didn't vote simply lost out, or don't count in deriving "the will of the people", then you could just as well argue that so did those who lost to the electoral college system.
I'm not American, my opinion is about as much worth as my passport.
And California wasn't a state but a largely empty colony of Spain.
Because, ironically, her campaign was convinced she had the election in the bag, and they didn't want to risk her losing the popular vote while winning the electoral college, because that could undermine her perceived "mandate".