Tighter differences between each notes' frequencies??
Please explain this thought.
Tighter differences between each notes' frequencies??
Please explain this thought.
For instance, a half-tone from 432Hz is 457.69Hz, which gives out a difference of 25.69Hz; but a half-tone from 440Hz is 446.16Hz, which gives out a difference of 26.16Hz. Between 432Hz and 864Hz we can fit a whole scale, while in the same frequency range we'd be missing a note with 440Hz tuning.
Of course, this is a slight difference and it might not be noticeable at all. I personally don't hear much difference between the two tuning. Instead, I'm playing devil's advocate.
Then most songs would sound 'better' a half-step down, etc.
The boiling point of water in Celsius is 100 degrees, and the freezing point is 0 degrees; in Fahrenheit, 212 and 32, respectively. What's significant is the scale of each unit. 99C is colder than 211 Fahrenheit.
In the case of music, which is all about relative frequencies, establishing A determines the size of the steps. The above poster is proposing that A=432 yields more interesting frequency relationships than A=440. I have no idea.
Consider the beggining of Bach's "Little" Fugue in G Minor (BWV 578), where the subject of the fugue is first introduced by a soprano voice and then repeated by an alto voice, while the soprano voice does the coutersubject. I'd say that, played in isolation, the melody sounds better when sung by the alto voice. But lowering the whole Fugue by a half-step wouldn't make it much better.