Doe anyone know where I could find a more in-depth explanation of why there can only be 0, 1/2, 1, 3/2, 2 spin fundamental particles??
If you're asking why it goes in steps of 1/2 it's a group representation theory thing (guessing you probably already know about that).
In that view I'm not convinced renormalizability is a strong enough property, since the graviton is famously non-renormalizeable (or so it seems, anyway). But I'll have a closer look at the quora thread; maybe someone has a more 'fundamental' argument.