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In order to be effectively condescending, you'll need at least a 9th grade level of knowledge on the topic. That you were able to mix up two very different theorists (possibly 3 if you were thinking of Rousseau) implies you're not actually very familiar with any of them.

I'm assigning you this, have it done by Friday: http://www.cresskillboe.k12.nj.us/cresskill/Schools/Cresskil...

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I did not mix up any theorists. Hobbes wrote about the social contract ~100 years before Rousseau did and 30 years before Locke. For all intents and purposes he invented the concept.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Social_contract#Thomas_Hobbes....

Hobbes whole point is that the state is created and maintained through a monopoly on the use of force primarily by means of force, aka violence, so that wouldn't make any sense in the context of what you said.

Still, I'm glad you read the wikipedia page: B+ for effort.

Hobbes wrote about contracts and tried to shoehorn the concept into the realm of political legitimacy. The framing of political legitimacy in the context of contracts is clearly misleading and is about as useful in modern political dialogue as phrenology is to neuroscience. Regardless of the differences between Locke and Hobbes, the terminology only serves to obfuscate the forces at play.

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