I have no idea why you are treating this as so antagonistic.
> It is quite curious to me that making a statement about the available historical record is interpreted as making "a relatively strong statement that things happened a particular way and gave nothing in the way of explanation, evidence, or elaboration."
I can't imagine that you think you gave explanation, evidence or elaboration. You object to my characterization of it as "a relatively strong statement"? I can weaken that language, but you made a specific claim and I was interested in it.
> Do you make the same charge when someone says the ideas of Isaac Newton predated those of Albert Einstein?
That is a question that is answered far more directly and far more easily, to the point that adding evidence to the conversation is not terribly interesting. So, no.
> Given that you're suggesting a scenario that is far more difficult to prove than what the historical record shows us, I think the burden of citing examples is more squarely on your side here.
The only claim I made was that I did not find something obvious, coupled with a request for more information. Your labeling something "my side" is confusing - my example was in pursuit of clarification you'd asked for, not something I am claiming happened.
> There is ample historical evidence available that documents the establishment and spread of religiously motivated moral aversion to many things. Within the context of the available historical record, it can further be established when these ideas were created in relation to the history of other ideas that either supported, refuted, or otherwise informed pre-existing moral aversions.
This is closer to the kind of elaboration I was looking for, though not at all specific.
> A religiously motivated moral and social aversion that demanded women on their periods keep themselves sequestered away from others predated the works of Shakespeare.
Much earlier - it's present in Leviticus and presumably predates that. I don't see that it's necessarily related, though.
> Moral aversion regarding sexuality (documented in religious texts from centuries BCE) predated recognition and discovery of STIs (which started as early as the 15th century, iirc).
Your timeline on "aversion to sexuality" is what I've had in mind from the start.
Regarding STIs, actual germ theory came hundreds of years after that. But this is talking past my question. It is certainly the case that no one said, "Hmm, there is an affliction spreading between people by way of sexual contact - let's tell people God will punish them if they fool around." That's Einstein vs Newton thing (or Einstein vs Ptolemy). That you think it relevant evidence confuses me. "The people who did X are the ones who got sick" is not predicated on any sophisticated understanding - it's the kind of thing that keeps people away from poison berries.
> The historical evidence is there! Go look at it.
You basically said the evidence wasn't there, above. I read your original statement as implying you had some in mind. It's clear that you don't.